No, but they are multiplicative inverses.
Two numbers are additive inverses if they add together to create the additive identity (0). For example, 3 and -3 are additive inverses because \(3+(-3)=0\).
In general, a and -a are additive inverses.
\(\frac{3}{4}\) and \(\frac{4}{3}\) are not additive inverses because \(\frac{3}{4} + \frac{4}{3}= \frac{25}{12} \ne 0\)
Two numbers are multiplicative inverses if they multiply together to create the multiplicative identity (1).
\(\frac{3}{4}\) and \(\frac{4}{3}\) are multiplicative inverses because \(\frac{3}{4} \cdot \frac{4}{3} =\frac{12}{12}= 1\)
In general, \(a\) and \(\frac{1}{a}\) are multiplicative inverses, as are \(\frac{a}{b}\) and \(\frac{b}{a}\)